Questions about the Devolution of Power that Created Saudi Arabia in 1932 -- for Legal Beagles and Diplomats?
When the devolution of governance authority occurred from Great Britain to the Saudi Royal family to create The Kingdom 1932 were there any behavioral constrainst or conditions placed on that enfeoffment? Was it absolutely unconditional Fee Simple Absolute so King Aziz, and later Faisal, and now the current King Faud can do precisely as they please?
Sometimes when devolutions are made (for example Ireland) there are conditions laid down at the time of the devolution. Thus a devolution can be conditional on the newly constituted government not acting in a homicidal manner, not acting in a lunatic manner, not creating chaos and destruction in all civilized nations by brainwashing youths to become terrorists and then turning them loose as the Wahabi Army of Allah upon a world of innocent civilians.
If the 1932 devolution was conditional -- and this is where I need a Legal Scholar who knows something about the British Foreign Office at that time and the deals that were made at that time, then presumably it would be possible for the Saudi Royals to behave in such a way that they forfeit their property interests in the Arabian Penisula. The property would revert back to Great Britain.
I don't know what the agreement was -- what was baked into the Treaty. Is it possible that the Saudi Royals by their disgusting, disgraceful, homicidal, and lunatic conduct toward many innocent persons and peaceful nations have forfeited their rights, so they have no land to call their own, no oil to sell, and no source of future trillions of dollars every year that allow them to corrupt Washington and make half of America's major corporations into their dancing puppets.
It's a question of the nature of the grant, or the terms and conditions, if any, in the Treaty of devolution that created Saudi Arabia in 1932.
Somebody in this world knows something about this subject. I would be so grateful to get some instruction in this area. Let's make this question a "no clowns zone", OK? Thanks, I appreciate it.
Answer by Lynn
Saudi Arabia is a sovereign, independent country. No matter what they do or haven't done, there's no way around that.
What do you think? Answer below!
Orignal From: What is the Legal Status of Saudi Arabia and the House of Saud Today?
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