We're buying a house. Unbeknown to the estate agent, the vendor's solicitor has just un-earthed the fact that he has an estranged wife who lived at the property 15 years ago. Assuming she is on the deeds (although he origianlly maintained sole ownership), I presume she would need to legally agree to sell the house & would claim 50%? However, the vendor's solicitor has tried to contact his estranged wife to 2 previous addresses to no avail - what happens now??
And where do we stand proceeding with the sale??
Answer by Landlord
You will not be able to buy her house without her agreement. Nothing is going to happen with the sale, you need to find something else.
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Orignal From: How can you sell a house when the person on the deeds in un-contactable?
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